How do you distinguish between people who have sexual dysfunctions, and people who, by orientation, don't experience sexual attraction? As each of these two groups asserts their own existence, do they need to deny the existence of the other group?
Back in June, there was a lot of discussion about Flibanserin, a proposed drug meant to treat women with hypoactive sexual desire disorder. Critics complained that the drug was marginally effective, and that the subsequent marketing campaign would generate unreasonable distress among women about low desire. However, there are also people who might want the drug--are we marginalizing them? (Flibanserin was eventually rejected by the FDA.)
On this topic, there is an interview on Shades of Gray with someone who has Female Sexual Dysfunction, and blogs about it from a feminist perspective. Go read it if you're interested.
I consider this to be an... er... advanced topic in feminism and queerness, but you can handle that, right? I'm drawing attention to the interview because I was one of the ones who pushed for it (I even wrote some of the questions).